HPE6-A75 Exam Dumps Pass with Updated Nov-2021 Tests Dumps
HPE6-A75 exam questions for practice in 2021 Updated 62 Questions
HP HPE6-A75 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statements accurately describe the status of the Onboarded devices in the configuration tor the network settings shown? (Select two.)
- A. They will connect to Employee_Secure SSID for provisioning their devices.
- B. They will connect to Employee_Secure SSID after provisioning.
- C. They will use WPA2-PSK with AES when connecting to the SSID.
- D. They will connect to secure_emp SSID after provisioning.
- E. They will perform 802.1X authentication when connecting to the SSID.
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION 34
Which technologies can prevent split brain in a VSF fabric that includes Aruba 2930F switches?
- A. ARP MAD or OOBM MAD
- B. VLAN MAD or ARP MAD
- C. LLDP MAD or VLAN MAD
- D. OOBM MAD or LLDP MAD
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 35
Which statement is true about the Endpoint Profiler? (Select two.)
- A. The Endpoint Profiler uses DHCP fingerprinting for device categorization.
- B. The Endpoint Profiler can only categorize laptops and desktops.
- C. Endpoint Profiler requires a profiling license.
- D. Data obtained from the Endpoint Profiler can be used in Enforcement Policy.
- E. The Endpoint Profiler requires the Onboard license to be enabled.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION 36
What is true about clustering and AP connections to cluster members?
- A. The default thresholds are 75% for the Rebalanced Threshold and 25% for the Unbalanced Threshold.
- B. AP load balancing is disabled by default.
- C. During rebalancing, the active load is redistributed first.
- D. The AP will always stay connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP profile.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 37
An administrator deploys Aruba Mobility Controller 7005s to a company's branch offices. The administrator wants to disable the console port to prevent unauthorized access to the controllers.
Which controller command should the administrator use to implement this policy?
- A. no mgmt-user console
- B. mgmt-user console-block
- C. no console enable
- D. console disable
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 38
What are Operator Profiles used for?
- A. to assign ClearPass roles to guest users
- B. to map AD attributes to admin privilege levels in ClearPass Guest
- C. to enforce role based access control for ClearPass Policy Manager admin users
- D. to enforce role based access control for ClearPass Guest Admin users
- E. to enforce role based access control for Aruba Controllers
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 39
A network administrator can set the OSPF metric-type on an AOS-Switch to Type 1 or Type 2. What is the difference?
- A. A Type 2 metric stays the same as the external route is advertised, while a Type 1 metric increments with internal OSPF link costs.
- B. A Type 2 metric marks external routes that can be advertised in NSSAs, while a Type 1 metric marks external routes that can only be advertised in normal areas.
- C. A Type 2 metric assigns cost 1 to a 100 Gbps link, while a Type 1 metric assigns cost 1 to all links of 100 Mbps or higher.
- D. A Type 2 metric is assigned to multiple external routes that are aggregated together, while a Type 1 metric does not permit external route aggregation.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the configuration of the Enforcement Profiles In the Onboard Authorization service shown, which Onboarding action will occur?
- A. The device will be disconnected from the network after Onboarding so that an EAP-TLS authentication is not performed.
- B. The device's onboard authorization request will be denied.
- C. The device will be disconnected after post-Onboarding EAP-TLS authentication, so a second EAP-TLS authentication is performed.
- D. After logging in on the Onboard web login page, the device will be disconnected form and reconnected to the network before Onboard begins.
- E. The device will be disconnected from and reconnected to the network after Onboarding is completed.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 41
An administrator supports a RAP to a branch office. Employees at the branch office connect to an employee SSID that allows for split tunneling of the employee traffic. The RAP initially connects to the corporate office controller, but later loses connectivity to it.
Which operating mode should the administrator configure for a secondary SSID to be advertised during the loss of connectivity?
- A. Standard
- B. Persistent
- C. Always
- D. Backup
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 42
Why is a terminate session enforcement profile used during posture checks with 802.1 x authentication?
- A. To remediate the client applications and firewall do that updates can be installed
- B. To blacklist the user when they are in an unhealthy posture state
- C. To send a RADIUS CoA message from the ClearPass server to the client
- D. To force the user to re-authenticate and run through the service flow again
- E. To disconnect the user for 30 seconds when they are in an unhealthy posture state
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit.
A known unicast packet is received from Switch-1 on the standby and must be forwarded to Switch-2. How does the VSF fabric decide which port in the aggregated (ink should forward the packet?
- A. The standby selects the port on the designated forwarder for the aggregation.
- B. The standby sends the packet to the commander over a VSF link, and the commander decides the correct port.
- C. The standby uses the typical load sharing algorithm, and it might select either its port or the commander's port.
- D. The standby uses its own port in the link aggregation to forward the fabric.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit.
Several interfaces on an AOS-Switch enforce 802. IX to a RADIUS server at 10.254.378.521. The interface 802. IX settings are shown in the exhibit, and 802. IX is also enabled globally. The security team have added a requirement tor port security on the interfaces as well. Before administrators enable port security, which additional step must they complete to prevent issues?
- A. Enable eavesdropping protection on the interfaces.
- B. Set an 802. l X client limit on the interfaces.
- C. Enable DHCP snooping on VLAN 20.
- D. Manually add legitimate MAC addresses to the switch authorized MAC list.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
An employee connects a corporate laptop to the network and authenticates for the first time using EAP-TLS. Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration shown, which Enforcement Profile wilt be sent?
- A. Onboard Device Repository
- B. Deny Access Profile
- C. Onboard Post-Provisioning - Aruba
- D. Onboard Pre-Provisioning - Aruba
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator implements AP licensing on a Mobility Master (MM).
* Each campus is responsible to purchase its own AP licenses.
* There are 900 AP licenses deployed in the global pool
* There are three dedicated pools.
* From the global pool, 300 AP licenses are assigned to each dedicated pool.
Network engineers at CampusA want to deploy an additional 100 APs. Currently all of the AP licenses in CampusA and CampusB are allocated, but only 200 of the AP licenses m CampusC are allocated.
What can the administrator do to add capacity for CampusA in alignment with campus policies?
- A. Allow CampusA to share from the CampusC pool.
- B. Move 100 licenses from the CampusC pool to the global pool.
- C. Add 100 more AP licenses to the global pool.
- D. Add 100 more AP licenses and assign them to the CampusA pool.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator sets up 802.1X authentication to a RADIUS server on an AOS-Switch. The RADIUS server and user devices are both set up to use REAP MSCHAPv2. The administrator tests the authentication and sees the output shown in the exhibit. Which issue could cause this output?
- A. The administrator entered the wrong password for the test account.
- B. The RADIUS shared secret does not match on the switch and the server.
- C. The switch does not have a certificate tor port-access installed on the switch.
- D. The switch port is set for user mode 801. IX. but the RADIUS server is set for port mode.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit.
An AD user's department attribute is configured as *HR". The user connects on Monday using their Windows Laptop to a switch that belongs to the Device Group HQ. Which role is assigned to the user in ClearPass?
- A. Vendor
- B. iOS Device
- C. Executive
- D. Remote Employee
- E. HR Local
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit.
- A. mike
- B. We can't know this from the screenshot above.
- C. john
- D. Employee
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 50
A company has AOS-Switches deployed at sites with inexperienced IT staff. The main office network administrators want to track if configurations change on branch switches. What should be set up for this purpose?
- A. an lP SLA profile
- B. an SNMP trap
- C. an auto-config server
- D. an RMON alarm
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 51
An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a private WAN circuit that provides connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is connected to a network storage device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about sending this traffic in clear-text across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
- A. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
- B. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
- C. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
- D. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 52
A network administrator wants to use Aruba AirWave to audit an AOS-Switch configuration. What rs one requirement?
- A. The switch is set to Manage Read-Write mode in AirWave but is not set to Monitor Only + Firmware Updates.
- B. The switch specifies the AirWave IP address for the RADIUS server used for Telnet and SSH authentication.
- C. The switch is authorized in AirWave, which has the correct credentials to log in as a CLI manager.
- D. The switch defines the AirWave IP address in its zero touch provisioning (ZTP) profile.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 53
in a VPN that uses certificate-based authentication, which component must be configured on the Mobility Master (MM) to allow a RAP to successfully connect to a Mobility Controller (MC)
- A. RAP IPSec pre-shared key
- B. RAP whitelist
- C. WLAN and new RAP group
- D. RAP VPN username and password
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 54
An administrator mistakenly configures the wrong VLAN setting on a managed controller's interface. This causes the controller to lose management access to the Mobility Master (MM).
Which mechanism will then attempt to restore the previous working configuration on the managed controller?
- A. auto-rollback
- B. disaster recovery
- C. bulk configuration
- D. restore config
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 55
OSPF is configured on an AOS-Switch, and the network administrator sets the router ID to 10.0.0.1. The administrator wants to be able to reach the switch at this ID from any location throughout the OSPF system. The administrator also needs the router ID to De stable and available, even if some links on the switch fail.
What should the administrator do?
- A. Configure 10.0.0.1 on a loopback interface, and enable OSPF on that interface.
- B. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a manual OSPF neighbor on each switch in the OSPF system.
- C. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a secondary IP address on the switch 00BM poet.
- D. Make sure that 10.0.0.1 is the IP address on the VLAN with the lowest ID.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 56
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